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Jesus is in Isaiah

Reader comment on item: A Christian Boom
in response to reader comment: Isaiah 42

Submitted by Servant of Christ (United States), Jan 14, 2007 at 15:17

Where did Jesus establish justice when he was on the earth?

Did I not say that he would in the second coming?

I told you this already that Isaiah 42 is splitting in two prophecies, Isaiah 42:1-8 are for Jesus and Isaiah 42:9-17 are for Muhammad.

Now, why would you say that the passage is about two different people? There is nothing anywhere in that passage that hints that the person God is talking about in Isaiah 42:1-8 is different from the one in 42:9-17. Jesus can fulfill both passages by himself. Muhammad doesn't even need to be in the picture. If this really is Muhammad, why does what the Qu'ran say and the Old Testament say contradict?!?

May God Bless You

Submitting....

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Note: Opinions expressed in comments are those of the authors alone and not necessarily those of Daniel Pipes. Original writing only, please. Comments are screened and in some cases edited before posting. Reasoned disagreement is welcome but not comments that are scurrilous, off-topic, commercial, disparaging religions, or otherwise inappropriate. For complete regulations, see the "Guidelines for Reader Comments".

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