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Again, Isaiah talks about Jesus

Reader comment on item: A Christian Boom
in response to reader comment: Muhammad in the Bible and not Jesus

Submitted by Servant of Christ (United States), Oct 20, 2006 at 17:28

Isaiah 42: 1-17:

42:1 Behold my servant, whom I uphold; mine elect, in whom my soul delighteth; I have put my spirit upon him: he shall bring forth judgment to the Gentiles.

Servant of Christ if you were to read Matthew 15:22-27 it says that Jesus was only send to the house of Israel and he called the gentiles dogs.

Not quite… That is may be an interpretation but he preached to the Canaanite woman did he not? And the fact that he preached to all the Gentiles means that he was a light to them all. So that's a very weak explanation of saying that Jesus was not a light to the Gentiles as well as the Israelites.

42:2 He shall not cry, nor lift up, nor cause his voice to be heard in the street.

If you read Bukhari 3.335 it will say this about Muhammad (pbuh): "You are neither discourteous, harsh Nor a noise-maker in the markets..." [Bukhari 3:335] See the similarities between Isaiah 42:2 and Bukhari 3:335

The Qu'ran came after the Bible so it is very likely that this verse was taken out to make it look like it was referring to Muhammed. I confused this passage with another. Apologies, this passage is talking about not drawing selfish attention to oneself. If you read, Matthew 12:15-21, you would see it most certainly applies here:

15Aware of this, Jesus withdrew from that place. Many followed him, and he healed all their sick, 16warning them not to tell who he was. 17This was to fulfill what was spoken through the prophet Isaiah:
18"Here is my servant whom I have chosen,
the one I love, in whom I delight;
I will put my Spirit on him,
and he will proclaim justice to the nations.
19He will not quarrel or cry out;
no one will hear his voice in the streets.
20A bruised reed he will not break,
and a smoldering wick he will not snuff out,
till he leads justice to victory.
21In his name the nations will put their hope.

42:3 A bruised reed shall he not break, and the smoking flax shall he not quench: he shall bring forth judgment unto truth.42:4 He shall not fail nor be discouraged, till he have set judgment in the earth: and the isles shall wait for his law.

Prophet Muhammad did not stop until his message from Allah was given to the people. He overcame his enemies and spreader Islam to the whole of Arabia and the law in which the people were waiting for was the Quran.

You ignored the first part. Muhammed did not help the ‘unimportants' as Jesus did. He was not the merciful preacher as Jesus was. Again, Muhammed did not set judgement on the earth. He didn't even set judgement on a quarter of the world. However, Jesus will return to judge ALL the earth.

42:5 Thus saith God the LORD, he that created the heavens, and stretched them out; he that spread forth the earth, and that which cometh out of it; he that giveth breath unto the people upon it, and spirit to them that walk therein:

42:6 I the LORD have called thee in righteousness, and will hold thine hand, and will keep thee, and give thee for a covenant of the people, for a light of the Gentiles

Jesus gave no new covenant in the bible in fact in Matthew 5:17Jesus say that he has only come to fulfil the old law set by the prophets: "Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. This verse proofs that Jesus came with no new law and he only cam to fulfil the old one.

I know, he fulfilled the Law and then gave the New Covenant. You're not understanding this passage, God is not saying that he will give a new Law, he is saying he will fulfill it. That means he will finish them, and give the New Covenant. How can you say, "Jesus did not give the New Covenant?" Read the NT carefully:

This is my blood of the covenant, which is poured out for many," he said to them. (Mark 14:24)

28This is my blood of the covenant, which is poured out for many for the forgiveness of sins. (Matthew 26:28)

20In the same way, after the supper he took the cup, saying, "This cup is the new covenant in my blood, which is poured out for you. (Luke 22:20)

13By calling this covenant "new," he has made the first one obsolete; and what is obsolete and aging will soon disappear.

15For this reason Christ is the mediator of a new covenant, that those who are called may receive the promised eternal inheritance—now that he has died as a ransom to set them free from the sins committed under the first covenant. (Hebrews 9:15)

42:7 To open the blind eyes, to bring out the prisoners from the prison, and them that sit in darkness out of the prison house.

42:8 I am the LORD: that is my name: and my glory will I not give to another, neither my praise to graven images.

Now Isaiah 42:7 does not mean that this prophet will heal the blind by making them see they again, it means that this servant will show the people a new way. In Isaiah 42:8 God is saying that he will not give glory to another God nor shall he have graven images of himself. But look at the Roman Catholic faith they have images of Jesus who is god in the churches and some even pray to Jesus or the Virgin Mary for help.

I'm neither Catholic nor do I support Catholicism. That's not the true Christianity I am concerned with. However, this is definitely not Muhammed. It is Jesus, who witnessed to the blind and to the prisoners of sin. You're just interpreting in a way that it should be…

2When John heard in prison what Christ was doing, he sent his disciples 3to ask him, "Are you the one who was to come, or should we expect someone else?"

4Jesus replied, "Go back and report to John what you hear and see: 5The blind receive sight, the lame walk, those who have leprosy[a]are cured, the deaf hear, the dead are raised, and the good news is preached to the poor. (Matthew 11:2-4)

How can Muhammed be a prophet? Name his prophecies, name his miracles! Not once in the Qu'ran does he even use God's name. How can the final and greatest prophet of God not even know God's own name!

42:9 Behold, the former things are come to pass, and new things do I declare: before they spring forth I tell you of them.

God is telling us in the above verse that new things will and he is going to tell them to the people of Israel.

Sigh… This is the coming of the New Covenant. Stop ignoring what Isaiah and Jeremiah are saying in unison.

42:10 Sing unto the LORD a new song, and his praise from the end of the earth, ye that go down to the sea, and all that is therein; the isles, and the inhabitants thereof.

The new song the God is talking about is the Quran because the new song means another language.

That's VERY fallible logic. Look, the NT is in Greek. So you can't even bring up the Quran because the NT was written before and in another language. But, that is not what this verse is talking about…

42:11 Let the wilderness and the cities thereof lift up their voice, the villages that Kedar doth inhabit: let the inhabitants of the rock sing, let them shout from the top of the mountains.

Muhammad is the direct descendant of Kedar and this go to this website to see for your self:

www.answering-christianity.com/family_tree.htm

and I did not say that all Arabs are descendants of Ishmael nor did Muhammad (pbuh) say that. Go to this website to see that Ishmael and some of his descendants lived in Arabia:

It doesn't matter that they lived in Arabia. There is still no proof that Muhammed or the Arab race descended from Ishmael. You give me a family tree with no chronology…

www.answering-christianity.com/paran.htm

Now I got a question for you if the Arabs are not the descendants of Ishmaels then who are and has God fulfil the promise that he gave to Hagar that Ishmael shall be a great nation?

It really doesn't matter who were Ishmael's descendants. Even if the Arabs were his descendants then that still avails you nothing. After all, God made his covenant with the Jews. The prophecy mentions Kedar, does that really mean he will come from there? For the greatest prophet, I would think that God would make his prophecies more obvious and less vague…

42:12 Let them give glory unto the LORD, and declare his praise in the islands

42:13 The Lord shall go forth as a mighty man, he shall stir up jealousy like a man of war: he shall cry, yea, roar, he shall prevail against his enemies.

42:14 I have time holden my peace: I have been still, and refrained myself: now I will cry travailing woman: I will destroy and devour at once.

42:15 I will make waste mountains and hills, and dry up all their herbs; and I will make the rivers islands and I will dry up the pools.

God his clearly saying that this prophet will make war and he shall prevail against his enemies and did Jesus make war during his life no he only taught love toward his enemies.

Okay, first of all, Isaiah was preaching this to the Jews, not towards the Arabs. So, it would make no sense for Isaiah to write to the Jews saying, "Hey God is going lead you to war and victory." And then the Arabs come and attack the Jews. Isaiah was written in the Jewish language so this was being spoken to the Jews. So who is this talking about? Jesus of course. You seem to have missed my point entirely earlier. I said, Jesus would make war with the nations in his SECOND COMING (read Revelations).

42:16 And I will bring the blind by a way that they knew not; I will lead them in paths that they have not known: I will make darkness light before them, and crooked things straight. These things will I do unto them, and not forsake them.

42:17 They shall be turned back, they shall be greatly ashamed, that trust in graven images, that say to the molten images, ye are our gods.

In Isaiah 42:16 it says that he will lead people of Kedar in to paths they have not known and he will make darkness light before them with Prophet Muhammad. In Isaiah 42:17 God say that they false pagan gods will be put to shame. Prophet Muhammad did to this to they gods when he entered the Kabah and destroyed all they 365 false gods and put them to shame because they gods didn't do anything. So Prophet Muhammad was foretold in the bible.

Very weak argument… God has put false pagan gods to shame all throughout history. Why is this any different? Just because Muhammed put to shame pagan gods, he must be "the Prophet"!!! But then again, so could all the other prophets! So this argument won't work.

Now I talk about Isaiah 41:

1 "Be silent before me, you islands!
Let the nations renew their strength!
Let them come forward and speak;
let us meet together at the place of judgment.

2 "Who has stirred up one from the east,
calling him in righteousness to his service?
He hands nations over to him
and subdues kings before him.
He turns them to dust with his sword,
to windblown chaff with his bow.

This is talking about God -.-. The people didn't even know who Muhammed is so this would have no relevance.

3 He pursues them and moves on unscathed,
by a path his feet have not traveled before.

4 Who has done this and carried it through,
calling forth the generations from the beginning?

I, the LORD -with the first of them
and with the last—I am he."

Why is this even underlined? This is just clarifying that all the verses earlier were about God.

5 The islands have seen it and fear;
the ends of the earth tremble.
They approach and come forward;

6 each helps the other
and says to his brother, "Be strong!"

7 The craftsman encourages the goldsmith,
and he who smooths with the hammer
spurs on him who strikes the anvil.
He says of the welding, "It is good."
He nails down the idol so it will not topple.

8 "But you, O Israel, my servant,
Jacob, whom I have chosen,
you descendants of Abraham my friend,

9 I took you from the ends of the earth,
from its farthest corners I called you.
I said, 'You are my servant';
I have chosen you and have not rejected you.

10 So do not fear, for I am with you;
do not be dismayed, for I am your God.
I will strengthen you and help you;
I will uphold you with my righteous right hand.

11 "All who rage against you
will surely be ashamed and disgraced;
those who oppose you
will be as nothing and perish
.

12 Though you search for your enemies,
you will not find them.
Those who wage war against you
will be as nothing at all.

13 For I am the LORD, your God,
who takes hold of your right hand
and says to you, Do not fear;
I will help you.

14 Do not be afraid, O worm Jacob,
O little Israel,

for I myself will help you," declares the LORD,
your Redeemer, the Holy One of Israel.

15 "See, I will make you into a threshing sledge,
new and sharp, with many teeth.
You will thresh the mountains and crush them,
and reduce the hills to chaff.

16 You will winnow them, the wind will pick them up,
and a gale will blow them away.
But you will rejoice in the LORD
and glory in the Holy One of Israel.

17 "The poor and needy search for water,
but there is none;
their tongues are parched with thirst.
But I the LORD will answer them;
I, the God of Israel, will not forsake them
.

18 I will make rivers flow on barren heights,
and springs within the valleys.
I will turn the desert into pools of water,
and the parched ground into springs.

Isaiah 41: 1-18 are talking about the helper of Israel which is Yahweh it is not talking about Jesus and is definitely not a prophecy future King or servant. The above verses are talking about how Yahweh has helped Israel in defeating his enemies and how he will help they land and give it water and it is not talking about the coming of Jesus. You also say that Isaiah 41:21 is talking about Jacob's in which you say is Jesus but it is not look carefully at the verse:

You're not understanding the concept of Jesus. He IS God. This explanation completely contrasts with the earlier. This time, everything is taken completely literally, and the one before was not taken literally. Which will it be? The Lord uses symbolism. The entire point of outlining Isaiah was the parts saying that the Lord called Israel his servant, which leads us onto Isaiah 42, "The Servant of the Lord."

21 "Present your case," says the LORD.
"Set forth your arguments," says Jacob's King.

First God says present your case in which he describes himself has the Lord of Jacob then he say set forth your arguments and say he is Jacob's king and also if you read the following verses you will see that God is talking to the idols worshippers to prove that they idols are real and powerful and not about Jesus.

Sigh… I was not referring to the "Present your case nor the arguments part. I was highlighting the Jacob's King part, which Jesus named himself at his crucifixion.

Then you say the following:

You can defend this prophecy if you want or show me other "prophecies" about Muhammed.

I have defended this prophecy and I will move on to the prophecy about the prophet like Moses in Deut 18:8.

Sohail

I will gladly continue to defend this prophecy. However, can we agree that Jesus is prophesied much more than Muhammed. Again, I must acknowledge the bitter irony that you're using the prophecies of a so called ‘fallible book' to defend an ‘infallible religion'. Do we agree that Jesus is the Messiah? Or do you even acknowledge there being a Messiah at all?

May God Bless You All

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