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Servant of ChristReader comment on item: A Christian Boom Submitted by Sohail (United Kingdom), Oct 22, 2006 at 07:10 They are two different ways we Muslims Interpret Isaiah 42, one way is that Isaiah 42:1-8 is a prophecy about the coming of Jesus and Isaiah 42:9-17 is prophecy about the coming of Muhammad. I believe that Isaiah 42:1-17 is a prophecy about Muhammad because Jesus in the New Testament called the Gentiles and that he said he was only send to the lost sheep of Israel. You still haven't answered my question about if the Arabs are descandant of Ishmael? and has God fulfil his promise to Hagar? or did God lie to Hagar? Sohail Note: Opinions expressed in comments are those of the authors alone and not necessarily those of Daniel Pipes. Original writing only, please. Comments are screened and in some cases edited before posting. Reasoned disagreement is welcome but not comments that are scurrilous, off-topic, commercial, disparaging religions, or otherwise inappropriate. For complete regulations, see the "Guidelines for Reader Comments". Comment on this item
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All materials written by Daniel Pipes on this site © 1968-2012 Daniel Pipes. Email: daniel.pipes@gmail.com You can help support Daniel Pipes' work by making a tax-deductible donation to the Middle East Forum. Daniel J. Pipes |
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