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Veils in the Bible

Reader comment on item: A Christian Boom
in response to reader comment: Servant of christ

Submitted by Servant of Christ (United States), Feb 11, 2007 at 16:27

1 Corinthians 11

True, 1 Corinthians 11 refers to a veil. However, the veil in ancient Christian culture in 1 Corinthians is very different from Islam.

1. The veil in the Greek culture that Paul was writing towards in those days was a sign of submission. The veil for a woman was a sign of submission to man. Now, submission is not bad nor is it demeaning. The Son submits to the Father and the Holy Spirit submits to the Son. All three are equally God and equal in status.

2. The veil was a sign of honor in those days. For this reason, and because of the angels, the woman ought to have a sign of authority on her head. (1 Corinthians 13:10). Her hair and her veil was her authority in those days.

I am not sure if the veil was worn after worship. Paul's letter seems to address only DURING worship but perhaps not after. Anyways, the meaning of the Biblical veils were a sign of honor unlike Islam. The veil is no longer used because most Christians don't live in ancient Greek culture.

May God Bless You

Submitting....

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