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Messianic Prophecies

Reader comment on item: A Christian Boom
in response to reader comment: Servant of Christ

Submitted by Servant of Christ (United States), Dec 12, 2006 at 21:38

I gave you two different interpretations to Isaiah 53 and the second one was right because Isaiah 53 is talking about the suffering of Israel and not of Jesus.

If you read Isaiah carefully, you can see that it talks about the Messiah or 'nation' bearing the sins of the Gentiles. Did Israel ever bear the sins of the Gentiles? Did Israel ever hate itself? It's just not grammatically correct.

What dogs is Jesus talking about here? Did lions or bull ever tried to kill Jesus in his life? Once again you have tooking this chapter out of it's context.

Not all of the verses apply to Jesus. And not all of the verses apply to David. Therefore, some are a foreshadowing of the Messiah. The significance of the first verse is that those were some of the last words Jesus spoke.

How does Isaiah 9:6 talk about Jesus?

I could give you the real verses which refer to the Messiah.

Isaiah 9:6 refers to the 'child' or the Messiah. This child was to be called God. That child was the Messiah, and the Messiah was Jesus.

Answer this question once more, how can Jesus be a prophet of God if he claimed he was God (don't bother ignoring those verses I've showed you again and again).

May God Bless You All

Submitting....

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