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Our dear M&M and the mafia tax aka al-jizya

Reader comment on item: Bolstering Moderate Muslims
in response to reader comment: jizya

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), May 6, 2007 at 18:12

You wrote

>The jizya was mainly symbolic

Bogus. Then where is your evidence as in extant historical evidence that the jizya was indeed "mainly symbolic" ? Let me help you you can read the Geniza documents and you can learn so much about such nasty tax that your Allah wanted imposed on the infidels and he is the same God who wanted 1/5 of the loot collected from infidles (Q8:41)! Just amazing. But oh I forogt that you do not know any Arabic, hebrew or Judeo-Arabic, so what is the use of quoting the Geniza documents.

And why did the Arabs continue to get those wannabe arabs the mawali (oh you do not know any Arabic those that wanted to convert to the religion of the Arabs) to pay such mafia tax, and why did the Arabs increase such symbolic tax (sic) when so many converted to islam following the Coptic revolt in 735CE and the income generated by the jizya fell? You tell us ya ayuha al-faylasoof al-kabeer!

As for hitting the infidels on the back of the head and neck when paying the jizya, you must read al-Zamakhshari's comments on the mafia tax aka al-jizya, and as for your "draft dodgers" what does this have to do with the jizya except in the minds of Muslims who try to justify the absurd. So are you trying to justify the absurd our dear M&M?

But like I say: you ain't no Hijazi Arab and Islam is the religion of the Hijazi Arabs, and more likely than not your ancestors had to pay such "symbolic" tax. Shame.


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