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Armenian revenge and definition of genocide

Reader comment on item: Ban Islam?
in response to reader comment: Blaming the victims of the Armenian Genocide

Submitted by Concerned Buddhist (Lithuania), Sep 26, 2007 at 01:48

I am also not especially interested in this discussion, since your arguments sound a little bit strange (wannabe Turks, blaming victims) and you do not seem to discuss seriously.

Armenian revenge is quite humanly understandable, especially in Causasian and Middle Eastern context, where the revenge for killed relatives or tribesmen was considered(and somewhere still is) a sacred duty. However, innocent Turkish and Kurdish victims killed by Armenians deserve the same respect as Armenian victims killed by Turks. The loss of human life is still a tragedy irrespective by whose hands it occurs and irrespective whether the events in question are qualified as "genocide" or not.

As for definition of genocide, the most of historians would agree that there was one, however it is almost impossible to apply the legal definition of "genocide" to these events since no competent international court qualified the massacres of Armenians by Turks as "genocide" and further, the definition of genocide appeared only in 1947 or 1948, so it is unclear, whether it could be apllied retroactively, and if yes who would be competent for that, especially now when there is no or almost no living particpants of events. In my opinion world nations have the only option - to apply pressure on Turkey that they themselves would recognize massacres of Armenians as genocide. But it would be very hard task.

As for Turkish claims outlined above, the fact is that the most of Turks do make such claims, there is no way to get around it and one should know their claims in order to be informed. In your opinion, reporting what other people say means supporting their views? Strange logic.


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