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Islam before blood

Reader comment on item: How to End Terrorism:
in response to reader comment: To Archimedes2

Submitted by trans-parere (Canada), Dec 13, 2006 at 02:37


A couple of times now you have posted that you are a liberal/moderate interpreter of Islam and offered your Jewish wife as proof. Muhammad had a Jewish wife and was no moderate. I can probably state with out error that thousands of Arabs prior to Islam and after took Jewish women for wives. Same for Iranians, Iraqis, Jordanians, Lebonese, Turks, Syrians, etc. etc. Judaism's descent and inheritance is matriarchial. Muhammad knew this which is why even today feudal Islam demands fidelity to Muhammad, as the perfect example. Muhammad said."I don't care if you are of my blood. If you do not revere me and worship my rules you are dead to me." (my interpretation of meaning)
( see Muhammads early days especially note his treatment towards his own uncle) .

Muhammad knew many (families/tibes/religions) in the region had intermarried and If he was to dominate and rule he would have to drive a wedge between this quasi-public peaceful co-existance. Blood would have to take a back seat to Muhammad and Islam.
If you and your family are from the Middle East you most likely carry a Jewish gene if such a thing exist. Bloodlines don't disappear because some warlord changes the hierarchy of fealty.
Islam is politics first. Judaism and Christianity is family first.
Are you going to allow the matriarchial course of Judaism to follow from mother to child?


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