Why didn't Denmark invoke Article 5

Submitted by Mike Klein (United States), Feb 14, 2006 at 22:40

I know it would have been too much to ask--but with embassies representing "foreign territory", surely Denmark would have been justified in invoking NATO's Article 5 (an attack on one state is an attack on all), thus putting the onus on NATO to stomp on any country where this happened.

Just a thought...

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