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The term "Byzantine" or a Muslim lesson in history

Reader comment on item: Cartoons and Islamic Imperialism
in response to reader comment: mohammad cartoon

Submitted by Ianus (Poland), Feb 12, 2006 at 17:04

Harrak, you wrote :

> You saw the term Byzantine as having nothing to do with describing the expertise of Mr hr. Yet here is why I decribed him as an expert in Byzantine. First read the definition of the Byzantine empire:

^^Byzantine Empire :(Greek: Βασιλεία Ῥωμαίων) is the term conventionally used since the 19th century to describe the Greek-speaking Roman Empire during the Middle Ages.

I don't have to read the definition of this empire. I have written a book on some of its early aspects [ the rule of the emperors Julian the Apostate (by the way the Church didn't cut off his head for apostasy), Jovianus,Valentinian, Gratian, Valens and Theodosius I ].

> Mr hr shares with the mentioned definition the following:

1-The Byzantine Empire is a GREEKE SPEAKING ROMAN empire, that is why I compared hr to it as Mr hr is an Arabic speaking alian -like he asserted without revealing where from. so that is the first point in common.

The Code of Justinian was written by Latin lawyers both in Latin and Greek. In the army they spoke Latin until a very late period. Plenty of Latin terms have penetrated into Medieval Greek. They even penetrated into the "pre-existing" Quranic Arabic where "sirat" comes from the Latin "strata" via (=street).
The Byzantines had good friends among Christianian or semi-Christian Arabic tribes, especially those of the Ghassanids. They were not "aliens", they were allies.

> 2-The Byzantine empire occured in the middle ages. I qualified Mr hr`s comments to be like those in the middle ages that use the language of : my way or the high way; and the language of supremacy...

"occurred"...? It lasted for more than 1000 years and was the continuation of another Empire that had lasted for more than 1000 years...
What do you know of the Middle Ages except your primitive Arabic theology invented by an illiterate gangster ?

> I hope this helped you decode the comparison...
any time..

If it helped with anything it hepled decode your scholarly excellency.

My friend Hr wrote :

> Muhammed a terrorist, a killer and a gangster thats not a joke, it's a fact.

Marial, go and read the Islamic books.

>Did you know that all non-Muslims are infidels and should be killed, what do you say about that? That's not a joke too, it's a constant threat from your Koran.

That's a perfect truth! Everyone in Byzantium and outside it knew that and teh Byzantines experienced this ghastly truth more than anyone else in the world since they eventually lost everything and were massacred and enslaved by bandits formed in the image of this terrorist, killer and gangster who never learned to read and write (=Muhammad)! Fortunately more and more people realize the same now.

And what I most value in Hr is his ability to prove the fact with original sources! Disprove this original Arabic sources if you can and if you can't , acknowledge you're wrong and open your mind to truth, Moselm!

Hr cites original sources. You instead put forth a third-rate definition and state that the Byzantine Empire "occurred" (just like a 'car accident' would occur or what? ) and want to prove thereby Hr is not correct while you are!

Muhammad , the genius of illiteracy, could "prove" his linguistic and extralinguistic miracles as he found crowds of even less "literate" listeners than himself and terrorized slaves everywhere. You're not given this chance here, Harrak!


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