A weak premise

Submitted by zzazzeefrazzee (United States), Jun 22, 2008 at 03:23

Leonard, "If I replied with history, you would only attack my sources . . . even the writing of the original bible and gospel itself." Why, I would love know where the Bible or Gospels mentions anything specific and unambiguous about Vedic spirituality. "Did the Vedic/Indus Empire ever have influence over Arabia?"

There was certainly trade, but did said "Vedic" influence ever overtake Semitic traditions? Have you proof of this? "What are the sources of Arabic language, specifically the word Arabia itself. Compare the sanskrit word 'Om' to Arabic script." Given that Sanskrit is Indo-European, and Arabic is Semitic, your comparison seems shaky at best.

For starters, did you know that they are written on opposing directions? Yes, I am familiar with the word "OM" and also Arabic script. What is this mysterious comparison that you allude to? I could continue, but you're only baiting with leading questions, while having evaded my single one to you.

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