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"Head covering" in the Bible

Reader comment on item: A Democratic Islam?
in response to reader comment: Veil for all

Submitted by jennifer solis (United States), Apr 28, 2008 at 17:16

Hello Thiagan,

Exodus 34:33 states - "When Moses had finished speaking with them, he put a veil over his face."

Does that mean Imams should start wearing veils?

I wonder what Muslim cleric Taj Din al-Hilali would make of this verse -

"But their minds were hardened; for until this very day at the reading of the old covenant the same veil remains unlifted, because it is removed in Christ." - 2 Corinthians 3:14

The only group of verses that specifically address the meaning of a "head covering" for a woman is 1 Corinthians 11:1-22.

Here, the apostle Paul uses the metaphore of a woman's "head-covering" which, back then (2000 years ago), was a sign of respect from the woman towards God, her husband, and towards society. Paul compares this with the devisive activity at the time of the Corinthian church, who, instead of putting God first, hold their own interests and factions as priority.

Again, this was 2000 years ago. Today, you could compare it to a woman wearing a bathing suit to church. This would NOT be a sign of respect towards God, her husband, or society.

It amazes me some of the "commonalities" Muslims try and find between their current belief system and the practices of modern-day Judaism and Christianity.

Does Judaism and Christianity ever look at Islamic scripture and try to claim "commonality"?

Sometimes Islam reminds me of an octopus, trying to insinuate themselves into every possible perceived "loop-hole" in the Bible.

They never succeed.

Submitting....

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