More evasive absolutism from Oliver

Submitted by zzazzeefrazee (United States), Apr 15, 2008 at 21:38

Sorry Oliver, but I do believe that if Kyrios sufficed for Adonai, then it does, by all accounts satisfy the definition of a translation. Unless of course, you are implying that all along, all Christians employed Hebrew texts and liturgies, which they obviously didn't.

Your sanctimonious absolutism is the only thing that buttresses your refusal to see these precedents.

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