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The word He Parys in Aramaic/Syriac and Allah and his angels pray upon Muhammad

Reader comment on item: Advice to Non-Muslim Women against Marrying Muslim Men
in response to reader comment: A very concerned reader: The correct translation of صلى الله عليه وسلم is not the PBUH nonsense

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Feb 3, 2021 at 17:58

Dr. Pipes,

The author of the Qur'an also uses the Aramaic/Syriac form for the word "praying" and it is صلوة instead of the Arabic صلاة and the author must have understood the Aramaic/Syriac meaning of the word صلوة and this is the root ܨܠܐ or SLA (the S here is a Sadhe) same as in Arabic and here is the word "he prays" in Syriac ܨܠܘܬܐ and notice that ܨܠܘ is SLU same as in Arabic and the last two letters ܬܐ is TA and this becomes the ta marbouta in the Arabic form of the word

Now, if we check the meaning of the Quranic word صلوة, it would have the same meaning as the Syriac ܨܠܘܬܐ and the meaning is: He prays and notice in this link the words Sala and Sluta really mean to pray

https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/%DC%A8%DC%A0%DC%98%DC%AC%DC%90

It is truly pathetic that Muslim scholars main goal in telling us what the Qur'an says had to make things up and it is indeed a disaster that the Qur'an says that Allah and his angels pray upon Muhammad.

Submitting....

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