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Continuing the Need to Understand Inconsistencies of Quranic Instructions - Persian Version

Reader comment on item: Advice to Non-Muslim Women against Marrying Muslim Men
in response to reader comment: What is a Kitab Mubeen and is the Qur'an a Kitab Mubeen?

Submitted by M Tovey (United States), Nov 10, 2021 at 14:46

At the risk of repetition of a petition, ever since this series of following DNM dissertations regarding the development of Quranic influences over the centuries of competing Judeo-Christian theological witnesses that led to the initial conflicts of post Byzantine Christendom and later supplanting replacement theological assertions of the Quran, the inconsistencies that wracked both arguments of superiority were compelling reading which led to not being able to understand that the Arabic (which has always been represented as the only way to understand the Quran) did not make sense if one was trying to understand the transition from Aramaic to Arabic in the early days of translating the Torah/Tanakh in comparison to how Christian precepts entered into the Quran-especially when the narrative was the Judaic theology was corrupted. Which was the clear book then? Did al-Tabari, not being Arab, truly have the correct perception so much later?
Is there where the issues between Shiite and Sunni have a point of dissention?
Please continue.

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