Continuing the Quranic Quest - Discerning How Much is Actually Borrowed?

Submitted by M Tovey (United States), May 4, 2021 at 12:22

DNM: In following your dissections and discernments of the Islamic theological explorations, one aspect keeps appearing that prompts the question as to why it was necessary to rewrite that which was promised to the 'Children of the Book,' when it is obvious what was written for the Jewish People was/is specifically directed to the Jewish People. Eventually, even the lesson to the Christian community over the centuries reveals that what was written for the Jewish Nation is still in prophetic perfection as is seen today. This is the conundrum even the 'Christian' community must reconcile prior to the arrival of eternity.
How does the believing perception of the Quran take on the appearance that it can actually replace the Hebrew Holy Writ when fulfillments about Israel are happening now on an almost daily basis. How does the Quran comport with that? What happens when Israel's existence is verified by verses in the Tanach and not in the Quran? Do we go back to the non-Arabic influences of the translations from the Aramaic/Syriac predecessors found in the Quran? DNM?

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