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YOUR ACCUSATION OF MUHAMMAD TO ASSOCIATE WITH NON-MUSLIMS PROVEN TO BE ERRONEOUS

Reader comment on item: A Saudi Prince's Threat to the Obama Administration
in response to reader comment: Nozzi: Why did Allah create unclean pagans if He hates them

Submitted by Mohamad Nozzi (Singapore), May 27, 2009 at 12:59

i have extracted from the words of Plato in which he strongly supports that Muhammad did associate with non-muslisms:

>> If the story stated is fact, how do you know whether that slave muslim? If that slave should be a muslim, we should not accuse Muhammad since Muhammad was with muslim slave.<<

What if that slave that had known by Muhammad before and they were married husband and wife, the history about their sexual lifestyle should not be accused since Muslims could have more wives as Allah allows.<<

Mary Qibtiyya was an Egptian Christian slave girl gifted to the prophet by Muqawaqqis a high official of Egypt. Rayhana bint Amr was acquired as slave from the Banu Quraiza tribe after Muhammad had all the males murdered including her husband.

Muhammad's marriage to Saffia the Jew girl the acquired after having her husband tortured and killed was not halal. By Islamic law he could marry a Jew but since her husband was newly dead he should have waited the mandatory two menstrual periods before marrying her. He married her the same night he had her close family members killed.

Have you read the history of Muhammad carefully when he received the revelation from the angel, Gabriel, he was surrounded by idolatry and there should not be any muslims around in this world and that caused his wife to be the next convert.

Please kindly read through the extract of the book of Sahih Bukhari and you should have discovered there were muslim slaves there at the time when Muhammad preached the message of Allah to the pagans:

Sahih Bukhari, Book #25, Hadith 579, "Narrated Ibn Umar: Allah's Apostle enjoined the payment of one Sa' of dates or one Sa' of barley as Zakat-ul-Fitr on every muslim slave or free, male or female, young or old, and he ordered that it be paid before the people went out to offer the 'Id prayer. (One Sa' = 3 Kilograms approx.)".

As there were muslim slaves there as mentioned in Sahih Bukhari, Book #25, Hadith 579, it implies that Muhammad and his muslim followers should have preached to non-muslim slaves to cause them to become muslims. Or in other words, the possible reason that Muhammad would have associated with these non-muslims, Mary Qibtiyya, an Egyptian Christian, and etc. could be merely due to Muhammad had preached the message of Allah to them so as to cause them to become muslims even though it is not stated in the book of Sahih Bukhari. As they became muslims, Muhammad had the right to have relationship with them since all muslims are clean. As Muhammad associated with new muslim converts, there should not be any reason for you, Plato, to accuse the morality of Muhammad.

Another reason that it is possible for Muhammad to associate with these non-muslims is they are clean due to they believe in Allah and the Last Judgment Day.

Quran 2:62, "Verily, those who have attained to faith (in this divine writ), as well as those who follow the Jewish faith, and the Christians, and the Sabians - all who believe in God and the Last Day and do righteous deeds - shall have their rewards with their sustainer; and no fear need they have and neither shall they grieve."

If you read the book of Holy Quran, you would have discovered the reason that causes a person to be muslim is due to his/her belief in Allah and the Last Judgment Day. As Quran 2:62 accepts Christians, Jews and Sabians if they believe in Allah and the Last Judgment Day, they are simply muslims and that is what make them to be clean before Allah. However, if these Christians, Jews and Sabians do not believe in Allah and the Last Judgment Day, they are not muslims at all. From the above analysis, it could draw to the attention that the so-called, people that have relationship with Muhammad must be muslims then and the association with Muhammad is to be considered clean and not contradict with the Holy Quran.

Read carefully Quran 6:151 since this verse forbids muslims to have deeper relationship with non-muslims whether non-muslims do not have marriage with muslims:

Quan 6:151, "Say (O Muhammad صلى الله عليه وسلم): "Come, I will recite what your Lord has prohibited you from: Join not anything in worship with Him; be good and dutiful to your parents; kill not your children because of poverty - We provide sustenance for you and for them; come not near to Al-Fawahish (shameful sins, illegal sexual intercourse) whether committed openly or secretly; and kill not anyone whom Allah has forbidden, except for a just cause (according to islamic law). This He has commanded you that you may understand. "

The phrase, whether committed openly or secretly, in Quran 6:151 refers to any circumstances whether muslims have marriage with non-muslims or muslims do not marriage with them. As the phrase, comenot ner to ....illegal sexual intercourse, is mentioned in Quran 6:151, Allah forbids muslims forbid illegal sexual intercourse whether it is done in the secret whether nobody knows or public to announce marriage with them.

Only you, Plato, non-muslims, could abuse the book of Bukhari to call muslims to abuse to have illegal sexual relationship with non-muslims.

We, moderate muslims, certainly condemn this act since it contadicts the book of the Holy Quran and you have spoilt the image of Muhammad to whom we, moderate muslims, would give high respect to him.

Submitting....

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