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All muslims are clean especially muslim slaves & muslim slaves existed when Muhammad was here

Reader comment on item: A Saudi Prince's Threat to the Obama Administration
in response to reader comment: Nozzi: Your prophet kept Maria as a concubine. Was she unclean?

Submitted by MOHAMAD NOZZI (Singapore), May 26, 2009 at 21:06

You have quote Buraida, Volume 5, book 59, number 637; book 8, number 3371; volume 5, book 59, Hadith 637; as well as volume 7, book 62, number 130. Nothing is mentioned among these books that you have quoted that Muhammad was associating with non-muslim slaves and we must not jump into this conclusion especially Allah forbids us, muslims, to associate with pagans, the unclean. You have to bear in mind that we have to believe in Allah and the Last Judgment Day and that causes us to have the privilege to call ourselves to be muslims. As the one that gives inspiration to Muhammad for the write-up of Holy Quran, we must obey Quran 4:3 as well as 4:24 not to have deeper relationship with non-muslims.

Muslim slaves are never to be considered as unclean on the sight of Allah as spelt out in Bukhari, Book 5, Hadith 281. The following is the extract:

Bukhari, Book 5, Hadith 281, "(mentions that) The Prophet came across me in one of the streets of Medina was Junub. So I slipped away from him and even to take a bath. On my return the Prophet said, 'O Abu Huraira! Where have you been?' I replied, 'It was Junub, so I disliked to sit in your company'. The Prophet said, 'Subhan Allah! A believer never becomes impure." As the phrase, A believer never becomes impure, is mentioned in Bukhari, Book 5, Hadith 281, it implies that all muslims whether they are slaves or not are to be considered as pure or clean.

Bukhari, Book 25, Hadith 579, "Narrated Ibn Umar Allah's Aposlte enjoined the pyamnet of one Sa' of dates or one Sa' of barley as Zakat-ul-Fitr on every muslim slave or free, male or female, young or old, and he ordered that it be paid before the pepole went out to offer the 'Id prayer. (One Sa' = 3 kilograms approx.). As the phrase, every muslim slave, is mentioend in Bukhari, Book 25, Hadith 579, it implies that muslim slaves did exist at the time when Muhammad was here for his mission.

As there were muslim slaves at the time when Muhammad was here for his mission and that all muslims are to be considered as clean or pure as mentioned in Quran 4:3, 4:24; as well as Sahih Bukhari, Book 5, Hadith 281, it implies that Muhammad must have deeper relationship with those muslim slaves as quoted by you for the number of verses that you highlighted. As Muhammad must have deeper relationship with muslim slaves for Buraida, volume5, book 59, number 637; book 8, number 3371; volume 5, book 59, hadith 637; volume 7, book 62, number 130, there is no justifiable reason to assume that Muhammad did associate with non-muslims, the unclean.

Submitting....

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