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Reply to Mohammed II

Reader comment on item: What Do Terrorists Want? [A Caliphate and Shari'a]
in response to reader comment: Muslims are responsible for explaining the Qur'an

Submitted by No dhimmi (United States), Jul 29, 2005 at 03:07

Mohammed,

"You said the definition of Jihad. You cannot take one part and ignore another."

No, Islamic law states this. Because it is "still on the books," those statements are valid and muslims are obliged to follow what they say.

"The Prophet ordered never to touch the civilians and never the women, children, no cutting trees, never touch a church, "

Never touch civilians, children, or women. Did you read what your Islamic Law says about these subjects......you can kill them if they are fighting muslims. It is in black-and-white.

I think you are practicing tagiyya or kitman here Mohammed.

"This explains the matter: Yes we must fight the evil powers like the Byzantine and Persian Empires. We must fight the British when they occupied Egypt, Iraq, Quait, before and shortly after WWII."

What gave Mohammed the right to judge the Byzantine or Persian Empires as being evil?

"What is wrong with that? Is it wrong to conquer an evil empire?"

So with this reasoning, the United States, England, Australia and other coalition forces are justified in overthrowing the evil empire of Saddam Hussein and bringing freedom to Iraqis. Wouldn't you agree using your logic.

"Please ask Muslims first then read the other words in the Qur'an and Hadeeth. You cannot interpret Islam without reading everything in it. Taking a part and ignore the others will lead you to error!"

I'm not in error with what I wrote. I took verbatum from the Islamic Sacred Law what it prescribes for jihad and dhimmitude.

What Sharia stipulates about those two aforementioned subjects has been followed by muslims for over 1000 years.
Submitting....

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