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Our dear Hassan aka Pierre and the no compulsion in Islam part deux

Reader comment on item: Recruiting Soldiers Against Radical Islam
in response to reader comment: skmiller: there is no compulsion in Islam!

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Apr 21, 2007 at 15:17

You Allah seems to have a love hate relationship with alcohol, so one time he says it is all OK to drink and it is good for you, then it is prohibited, and a later verse abrogates earlier verses, et viola, no more khamra in Islam. More later

Now the muslim 3Ulama in far away Mesopotamia and Iran some 300 years after the death Of Muhammad tried to figure out the confused book of Allah and in this case is Q2:256 where we can read the

>La ikrah fi al-deen

Or: There is no compulsion in religion.

But this did not make any sense to most of them as based on ayat al-sayf (Q9:4) and ayat al-jizya (Q9:29) and the doctrine of al-nasikh wa al-mansukh (or abrogation aka Allah chaning his mind) we had three lines of exegesis (which makes you wonder that no one had a clue what all of this really means)

1. Most of the 3Ulama stated that the "no compulsion" was abrogated by Ayat al-sayf period. So much for tolerance in Islam.

2. A few 3Ulama provided us with a fancy story about Muslim women in Medina asking Jewish families to raise their children (hoping to secure the child a long life) and then when the Jews were expelled , Muhammad was asked what should we do about those children and his answer was and you guessed it Q2:256! Do Jews still raise Muslim kids in Medina? The answer is no therefore this aya and speaking of context has no context anymore.

3. Tabari tells us that Q2:256 apply only to those that pays the jizya and they are the jews and Christians. Hindus your own ancestors? No The rest of humanity? No! So much for blanket no compulsion in religion in islam!

And why do we have more than one exegesis of such simple aya unless no one had a clue what Allah really means by such aya and why is that? Do you know what this really means?:

1. It could mean that the Quranic material pre-dates Muhammad and no one had a clue in 632CE when Muhammad died and in 3rd cenutry Mesopotamia and Iran what this all means.

2. Or that the Qur'an was not canonized for 300 years after the death of Muhammad and by the 3rd century the 3Ulama had no clue what these Quranic pericopes and logias really mean

Well, this indeed detaches Muhammad from the Qur'an and Islam from the HIjaz!

What do you think ya ayuha la-fahlawi al-kabeer?

But the strange thing is: How come you did not know that?

Now back to alcohol: with your poor logic and bogus falsafa it seems that it is OK to drink khamra in Islam, so the next drink is on me, our dear Hassan al-tablighee.

Submitting....

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Note: Opinions expressed in comments are those of the authors alone and not necessarily those of Daniel Pipes. Original writing only, please. Comments are screened and in some cases edited before posting. Reasoned disagreement is welcome but not comments that are scurrilous, off-topic, commercial, disparaging religions, or otherwise inappropriate. For complete regulations, see the "Guidelines for Reader Comments".

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