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to Abdullah A

Reader comment on item: Christianity Dying in Its Birthplace
in response to reader comment: Quran, Response to Shazia

Submitted by tariq (Pakistan), Jan 12, 2006 at 15:42

what u mentioned in your comments here http://www.danielpipes.org/comments/26403 are not special privileges given to muhammad (pbuh)
Holy Prophet Mohammad(pbuh) married Zainab only after she was divorced and all the issues between her and Zaid were settled.(Zaid and Zainab had differences between them and could not live together) this is not a special privilidge. this was done to show the muslims as an example that a divorced woman can be married(in those days it was a common practice of the pagans of makkah that once a woman had been divorced, she was not allowed to marry again) it also showed the muslims that a divorced wife of an adopted son can be married.

your translation of 66:1 is not correct. the translation is ":O Prophet! Why holdest thou to be forbidden that which God has made lawful to thee?"

It is not allowed in Islam to have sex with any1 except your husband or wife, not even for mohammad(pbuh). u said that Maria was Habsa's maid. thats not true. Maria was a slave girl given to Mohammad by egypts king. she was later freed and married by the prophet. and after that she bore him a son, Ibrahim.

this is not a special privelege. this was done by mohammad to show that a slave can be freed and married(in those days slaves were not looked upon as being equal to u, but Islam teaches otherwise)
in your comment u stated that quran says in this verse that it is not forbidden for mohammad(pbuh) to hav sex with a slave girl.Thats totally wrong my friend. Quran is only stating that it is not forbidden for a muslim to marry a freed slave.
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