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Should the word, fight, in the Quran be interpreted as fighting against non-muslims?

Reader comment on item: Christianity Dying in Its Birthplace
in response to reader comment: Ignoring the Muslim Jihad just like we ignored hitler's Jihad.

Submitted by ZUMA (Singapore), Apr 20, 2012 at 23:24

Sahih Bukhari, Book #31, Hadith #222 " Narrated Ibn 'Abbas: The Prophet came to Medina and saw the Jews fasting on the day of Ashura. He asked them about that. They replied, "This is a good day, the day on which ALLAH RESCUED BANI ISRAEL from their enemy. So, Moses fasted this day." The Prophet said, "We have more claim over Moses than you." So, the Prophet fasted on that day and ordered (the Muslims) to fast (on that day).

The phrase, Allah rescued Bani Israel, as mentioned above implies that Allah even cared about Israel. Muslim terrorists have acted adversely to have hatred against Israel in this modern days. Would the interpretation of the word, fight, be found in everywhere in the book of Quran to be interpreted as to fight against non-muslims? Or else, Allah would not have rescued Israel instead Allah would have slaughtered them.

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