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Why did Musharraf do this?

Reader comment on item: Musharraf's Historic Speech

Submitted by Wayne Wagner (United States), Sep 20, 2005 at 11:20

Could it be because he has been threatened so much by extremists, and has experienced so many assassination attempts, that he figures there is no additional risk entailed by speaking of Jews sympathetically?
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Note: Opinions expressed in comments are those of the authors alone and not necessarily those of Daniel Pipes. Original writing only, please. Comments are screened and in some cases edited before posting. Reasoned disagreement is welcome but not comments that are scurrilous, off-topic, commercial, disparaging religions, or otherwise inappropriate. For complete regulations, see the "Guidelines for Reader Comments".

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