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The meaning of OBVIOUS

Reader comment on item: Friendless in the Middle East
in response to reader comment: How come the Arabs do not call a book sifr our dear Amin? let me help you because sifr is not an Arabic word but it is in the Qur'an!

Submitted by Amin Riaz (United Kingdom), Mar 17, 2012 at 23:01

"Our dear Amin who lives among kuffar you tell us how come non of your masters the Arabs use the word sifr for book and instead they use the word kitab? any guesses?"

Words get dropped and used. Many words from the Quran don't get used today. The book is over 1400 years old.

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and how come the Arabs do not use the Quranic word tur instead of jabal or mountain? any guesses?

Actually Tur is quite commonly used especially in Literature. Writers such as Shukri or Anis Mansour - those that write in Fusha.

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"It seems that your masters the Arabs do not follow Quranic Arabic or Quranic grammar as in the case of the disaster bism and tur and now sifr"

Bism was your lie... jeez! That was language of 1400 years ago. It is a bit obvious why they don't use many words.

As far as Grammar - MSA and Classical are still very close. There isn't all that much difference. Aamiyah is a different matter.

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What a waste of a comment

Submitting....

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