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Reply to Michael Green

Reader comment on item: Reflections on the Revolution in France*
in response to reader comment: Islamic Violence dates back long before 1979 in Europe

Submitted by Mu'een Ud Deen (United Kingdom), Nov 9, 2005 at 04:52

Asalaamu alaykum (peace be upon you)
I am a Muslim and regret to inform you that 'Islamic violence' is non-existent. yes, there were Muslim expansions into Spain and western Europe, but does that necessarily define Muslims? If so, would you define the British as 'violent', as (in the past) they were colonialist's and rapidly expanded their empire? What could be said for the Crusades? Furthermore, Muslim countries economies aren't as bad as you say they are; did you know Mr Michael Green that 10% of America's economy is controlled by Muslim (Arabs), imagine what would happen to America if the Muslim's removed that 10%, it would result in the deteriation of America's economy (so much for a super-power).

I do not deny that their are some Muslim dictators or that some Muslim governments are corrupt, but that could be said for any other country (examples include; Mugabe, Saddam and even George W.Bush).

Secondly, the Muslim's have an international community known as the Ummah, a society of brotherhood, therefore if some of the Ummah is being wrongly accused, or attacked - what do you think the other Muslim's will do? (Sit and Watch!)

Morale - every country or religion has a history of 'violence' (in your case), every country has dictators or even corrupt governments, so therefore you can't highlight Islam or Muslims, or associate them with violence.
Submitting....

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