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For Our dear M&M and his bogus arabic and the Qur'an really says that islam is the religion of the Arabs only and you ain't one

Reader comment on item: How the West Could Lose
in response to reader comment: dhimmi, READ YOUR OWN EVIDENCE FIRST

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Apr 2, 2007 at 19:41

So what did we learn from your post? Nothing. Not a thing as you shall see islam is the religion of the arabs and you ain't an Arab.

Oh I forgot that you wrote:

>That ayat

Bogus Arabic ayat is the plural of an aya now do you get it?

Then you wrote:

>Following ayas

English/Arabic!!!! ROTFL . No it is not ayas it is ayat if we are talking plural that is! See ? you do not know any Arabic

Now this is what it says in Q14:4 and this aya is a real Quranic pericope (do you really know what is a Quranic pericope? I doubt it very much):

1. wa ma arsalna means and we did not send but this is aspect so it is read as: we do not send. and notice that it is present tense.

2. min means from

3. rasul (with I3rab it is rasulan): means prophet (notice the Nabi/Prophet dicotomy)

4. ila means except/unless

5. Bilisani means in the tongue of (or speaking the language)

6. Qawmuhu mreans his people (the people of the Nabi/Prophet)

The rest of the aya is the usual Quranic blah....blah,...blah....

Or: "we do not send a messenger unless (he comes) in the language of his people..." (see QS page 53)

Very easy to translate

So your allah is saying that he only sends a prophet that speaks the language of his people and in the case of the Arabs Muhammad was sent to them as he was an Arab and his langauge was Arabic. Very simple and very clear. he for sure was not sent to youtr ancestors the hindus.

More damaging to your case is the claim in the bogus Hadith and based on Q14:4 is that we have the claim that your Allah sent 120,000 prophets to various nations speaking their languages!

From secular history we know that the early Arab invaders did not approve of the idea that non Arabs can convert to islam and it was based on the reading of Q14:4 and the answer to this was that a convert must become an Arab (Arabized first) and this can be acheived through the so called mawali concept so the potential convert becomes a mawla and he is sponsored by an Arab who is the wali! Do you get it now? And when a mawla can have a wali onlt then he the mawla can convert ot islam (or Islamized).

India was a very different as there were just too many people and the concept of Mawali/awliya (plurals of mawla and wali) just did not work.

Now let us see what our dear Pickthall who was an Englishman who was converted by tablighees (ROTFL) while staying in India and as far as in know he never lived in an Arabic speaking country.

"and we never sent a messenger save with the language of his folk that he might make the message clear to them and the rest is the usual blah....blah..."

Now here is his mistakes in tranalstion:

1. The "never send" is a horrible translation the word never means abadan and I do not see it here and this is not what it says as it says wa ma arsalna or and we do not send. Bogus Arabic by a wannabe Arab

2. The word qawmuhu means his people period. His folk? may be in old England but in Arabic it means his people.

3. Then he wrote: "that he might make the messege clear for them"

Bogus translation by a wannabe Arab. There is no such words in this aya. What he provides you here is a ta'weel but it is not what is in the aya.

So your reference is a poor one and you can consult with your ignorant Mullah and feel free to prove me wrong.

Now I will help you the only smart comment about this aya and the fact that it is read as islam is indeed the religion of the Arabs is Suyuti's comments and for this see Itiqan page 106-107.

Still more damaging to your case is that the following ayat stress the ethnocentric position of prophets and that are: Q10:47, 13:8, 35:24, 28:75.

Let me repeat it one more time: Islam is the religion of the arabs and you ain't one.

Submitting....

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