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A further difference re Judaism

Reader comment on item: Why Shariah Must Be Opposed

Submitted by Peter Herz (United States), Aug 5, 2009 at 19:14

Whether a religion is missionizing or not is moot in this matter.

Jewish Hakakha is acceptable in Western Law if for no other reason than both Christianity and Judaism read the Old Testament (there. I've shown my Christian flag). Islam does not. Indeed, it excuses itself from this task by accusing the Jews and Christians of corrupting the Scriptures (and does not explain how these two competing and mutually non-cooperating religions read the same Tenakh).

Further, the rise of the Western ideal of the rule of law occurred not with the enlightenment, but earlier, as a response to claims of royal absolutism. Look up the 16th and 17th century polemics on constitutionalism vs. royal absolutism, and you find a vigorous debate on the meanings of Deuteronomy 17 and First Samuel 8.

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Note: Opinions expressed in comments are those of the authors alone and not necessarily those of Daniel Pipes. Original writing only, please. Comments are screened and in some cases edited before posting. Reasoned disagreement is welcome but not comments that are scurrilous, off-topic, commercial, disparaging religions, or otherwise inappropriate. For complete regulations, see the "Guidelines for Reader Comments".

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