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Do you understand what baseless means?

Reader comment on item: Arabist Snobs
in response to reader comment: A question of prejudice

Submitted by Peter Hall (Australia), Dec 2, 2011 at 19:28

Well Amin Riaz, you claim baseless prejudices?

Baseless means no evidence, precedence or foundation in fact.

Have you ever heard of taqiyya? By using the term baseless prejudices, are you using taqiyya? Obviously you are very familiar with the term, I quote taqiyya from


Islamic spokesmen commonly use taqiyya as a form of 'outwitting'. The skilled taqiyya-tactician doesn't want the matter at hand to be debated or discussed; so his opponent must be outwitted or preemptively outflanked by the use of taqiyya. The objective is to divert attention away from the subject through duplicity and obfuscation.

Now you may not agree with what this article states, however it does exist and therefore there is a base for believing that Muslims lie as part of their religious dogma.

So were you just lying or using taqiyya? Or are you going to deny it exists or you have knowledge of this? Are you going to want me to quote my sources, or give an example from 1000 years ago to prove the claim baseless?

I think you should apologise for your obvious lie, as there is a base to the claim, one you are fully aware of.


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