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6% constitutes buying the land of Israel?

Reader comment on item: Not Stealing Palestine but Purchasing Israel
in response to reader comment: Purchasing Israel

Submitted by Ivan Pope (United Kingdom), Jul 25, 2011 at 06:49

What Mr Pipes omits to mention is that by 1947 Jewish interests had bought only 6% of Palestine: " the total Jewish ownership of land in Palestine in 1947 was 1,734,000 dunums or 1,734 square kilometers, which is 6.6% of the total land"

Sure, this was a pretty astonishing achievement, it doesn't add up to buying the land mass of Israel. The rest was aquired by the state after partition. This was against the wishes of the vast majority of the population, but hey, they were ignored and still are.

Sure, it's not stealing when you buy the land, but by the same measure, it's not a nation when you buy land. The nation of Israel came into being by a)the 'giving' of part of Palestine by the United Nations and b)by conquest.


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Daniel Pipes replies:

I did address this point in the follow-up blog at http://www.danielpipes.org/blog/2011/06/zionists-purchasing-israel

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