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The Quranic anfasakum

Reader comment on item: Salman Rushdie and British Backbone
in response to reader comment: dhimmi please one more time

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Aug 23, 2007 at 18:03

This is how the word is written in the Qur'an 4:34

1. laif madda or A

2. nuun with a sukun or n.

3. feh with a damma or f

4. seen with a fatha or sa

5. kaf with a damma or ku

6. meem with a sukun and it would be m

So the word is voclaized as: anfasakum (see Ruthevn) and even if you read it as anfasukum it would not change the meaning

I do not think he is an Arab. Pakistanis confuse the words roh and nafs and they have no clue which is which. Any Arabic speaker would agree with Pickthall's transaltion that the word here means: One another aka yourselves.

the long alif can be missing in the Quranic rasm (and for this see example below) and is he aawre that the original Quranic rasm did not have short vowels and it has many missing long vowels? and it was all edited by the 3Ulama. Ask him: How come he did not know that?

Now if you have Pickthall's translation you will find that the word MLK (this is the rasm) in Surat al-Fatiha is written as

1 M from the rasm

2. then we have an added alif after the meem which is the editing by the 3Ulama or aa

3. Lam from the rasm

4. then we have a kasra added by the 3ulama or i

5. Kaf from the rasm

6. then we have an added kasra or i

and now we have the word MaaLiKi

Another example of a word that lacks an alif but it is added by the 3Ulama above the rasm is al-BYNT or al- Bayanaat and for this you can check Pickthall's translation page 40 Q2:253


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