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Why would Allah send a book written in Greek (al-Injil) to an Aramaic speaking "prophet" and his Aramaic speaking people? And gems from our dear JJ

Reader comment on item: Is Prince Charles a Convert to Islam?
in response to reader comment: painfully obvious truth

Submitted by dhimmi no more, Jan 28, 2019 at 16:06

Boys and girls: We have a "scholar" here

Our dear JJ wrote:

>As in a normal ketubah, HE commanded Israel to again turn back to CREATOR and HIS laws and walk as HE HIMSELF walked while HE goes to prepare a place for the new/renewed covenant bride. Just as in the original covenant we as strangers can come in and join with Israel. Painfully obvious yet the modern churches are missing this simple truth.

What Khutubah and Israel, and Jesus and Churches and Shish Kabab and Falafel? Your post is and you must pardon me "word salad"

However, I'm curious to know: Why would your Allah send a book written in Greek (al-Injil) to the Aramaic speaking Jesus and his Aramaic speaking people the Jews? Remember that your Allah sends a prophet only if he speaks the language of his people (Q14:4) unless Jesus was sent to Greek speaking people!

BTW: Your so called prophet was sent only to his people the Hijazi Arabs only! Oh you do not believe? Read Q14:4

Submitting....

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