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Reader comment on item: Is Prince Charles a Convert to Islam?
in response to reader comment: Which Koran?

Submitted by donvan (United States), Jul 24, 2007 at 15:24

Koranic teachings may admonish Muslims not to kill "Innocent" people. It then clarifies that Jews, infidels apostates, and others are not "Innocent" because the rejection of Muhammed's message , whatever that may be, makes them not "innocent". The Koran is replete with this kind of doublespeak, designed to obscure, obfuscate, and mislead.

The effort is to present a placid and non threating face to the uninitated. This is typical stuff for most occult belief systems. But they always give themselves away. Who is to decide who is innocent and who is not innocent? "The god" decides, who speaks for "The god", some Mullah,or Imam? And who says he gets to decide who is innocent and who is not? This ambiguity is what leads to the barbaric stonings, beheadings,terrorism,and the pathetically unjust shriia laws. Reformation of Islam, rejection of violence, freedom of the individual and the renouncing of shriia law is a good first step, but will not happen. If Islam cannot or will not be reformed, then its destruction is the only alternative.

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Note: Opinions expressed in comments are those of the authors alone and not necessarily those of Daniel Pipes. Original writing only, please. Comments are screened and in some cases edited before posting. Reasoned disagreement is welcome but not comments that are scurrilous, off-topic, commercial, disparaging religions, or otherwise inappropriate. For complete regulations, see the "Guidelines for Reader Comments".

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