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Jesus not sent only to Israel Matthew 15:24

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in response to reader comment: Jesus was sent to the house of Israel ony not to the whole world

Submitted by kevin (Australia), Feb 21, 2017 at 22:36

To suggest that Jesus came only to Israel and that gentiles have no place in the gospel is plainly not true.
Paul, who wrote much of the New Testament, chose to preach to the gentiles because the Jews rejected the gospel (Acts 13:46).

The word "but" in Mat 15:24 is the same Greek word that is often translated "save", meaning ONLY. For example Mat 11:27, 13:57 and 19:11 and many more.

After stating that he came NOT ONLY to the lost sheep of Israel, he then answers the prayer of the gentile woman.

The bible does not contradict. Jesus lived under the Old Testament but his achievement at Calvary opened the door to Israel and gentiles alike. The new testament is in force after the death of the testator (Hebrews 9:16).

Therefore I submit that the correct translation of Mat 15:24 is:

I am not sent ONLY unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel.

Submitting....

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Note: Opinions expressed in comments are those of the authors alone and not necessarily those of Daniel Pipes. Original writing only, please. Comments are screened and in some cases edited before posting. Reasoned disagreement is welcome but not comments that are scurrilous, off-topic, commercial, disparaging religions, or otherwise inappropriate. For complete regulations, see the "Guidelines for Reader Comments".

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