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Muhammad's age and the topos of 40! Read and laugh part deux

Reader comment on item: Q&A: Remaking a Religion
in response to reader comment: Comparing Islam with Christianity

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Feb 22, 2011 at 07:00

Our dear Esq whose Zoroastrian ancestors were dragged into Islam yelling and screaming and now he is a follower of the religion of the Arabs that brutalized them right our dear Esq

>1. The dispute surrounding the date of the Prophet's birth is a result of the differences between the hadith and sira sources from both Sunni and Shi'i sects.

Oh so in part one I told you how the ulama that wrote the sira and 3ilm al-maghazi (the biography of a so called prophet is called "The Invasions"! How despicable! but he was not the Buddha for sure) could not find any information in the Qur'an that can tell us anything about this Muhammad so they had to make things up and the end result was what Lammens called "the literary master piece of deception" also known as the sira

Now check Muhammad's age part one


And the summary is as follows:

622CE (the only solid date in the saga of what was to become Islam) +/- 10 or is it 13 for Mecca a place that was invented by the Abbassids and Medina et volia Muhammad died in 632CE and his so called Hijra was in 622CE and he received his so called revelations or mab3ath in 610CE or is it 613CE and only allahu a3lam then the ulama tell us that he must have been born in 3am al-feel or the year of the elephant which would have been 610CE - 40 et voila he was born in 570CE but may the gods forbid did the ulama agree on any of this nonsense? Not even close but to stablize his sira aka the literary master piece of deception they had to agree on these dates which are all bogus and as I proved in part one and thanks to Conrad that this cannot be true

So you see our dear Esq neither the Sunnis nor the Shi3a had any clue and it is all deception by a bunch of liars!

And here is your bonus for today our dear Esq: al-Tabari calls Q105 as surat alam tara but later on it is called surat al-feel! Why is that our dear Esq? Let me help you: This means that the names of the individual suras did not drop from the sky (gasp!) as we are told by the historicizing Islamic historical tradition and that the names of the chapters of the Qur'an were still in flux in the 3rd Islamic century!

So much for the bogus claim that the Qur'an that we have today dropped from the sky in the way we have it today

So how did the ulama get that 40 number? Well guess what? they had to dig in the Qur'an again and indeed you will find it in surat al-ahqaf aya 15 where it says

idha balagha ashuda wa balagha ARBI3IINA SANA (40 years) qal rabi awzi3uni

or when he attains full strength and reaches 40 years he said my god arouse me

et voila the literary topos of 40 makes it to the Qur'an and more evidence as you shall see that the author here cannot be a god but mere human beings as you shall see below

So here we are the ulama found the number 40!

But the funny thing here is there is nothing historical about any of this nonsense!

For the readers:

In the antique world and the late antique world and the medieval world the number 40 was read in the Greek, Syriac, Jewish, Armenian, Coptic literary sources as (for this see Conrad):

1. Forty as a topos of multitude or prediction so if the text says that let us say Alexandria when the Arabs invaded Egypt had 4000 villas and 40,000 Jews it really means that the city had many villas and too many Jews and the number 40 can be 400, 4000, 40,000 etc and we also have from the OT and the notion of the 40 year reign and in this case the number 40 is not a real number that has chronology

2. Forty can also be used as a literary topos of acme or perfection as you can see in the above Quranic verse but in this case the master piece of literary deception aka the Sira tells us that in the case of Muhammad this 40 is a real number! go figure

And yes we still see this topos of 40 used in the Middle East to this day in what is called al-arbi3een or the 40th day prayer after the death of a loved one and it means that the loved one died long time ago and it is now closure time

So why would the author of the Qur'an use the literary topos of 40 that was invented by kuffar and make it the words of Allah? This to me more is evidence that the Qur'an was composed by mere human beings!

Now do you get it our dear Esq? so you tell us why do we have to believe this nonsense? and why should you believe it?

So much for the master piece of deception aka Muhammad's sira


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