Dear Tom....

Submitted by Mohammed Amin (United States), Jul 3, 2007 at 15:01

How is that any different from the Jewish overtaking of Palestine. Wasn't the only claim Jewish People had on Palestine (Israel wasnt established then) that that their Torah promised them the Holy Lands?

Arabs got this land more then 1000 years ago from the Romans (peacefully). Although the Christian fascination never went away. I refer to you the "Crusader" wars and the British Empire? And eventually the colonial power shifting Jews to the Holy Land.

Dont you actually consider that wrong either? And what exactly do you about the Jewish claim on Holy Land (i.e. Palestine or Israel) after more then 1000 years?

Note: Opinions expressed in comments are those of the authors alone and not necessarily those of Daniel Pipes. Original writing only, please. Comments are screened and in some cases edited before posting. Reasoned disagreement is welcome but not comments that are scurrilous, off-topic, commercial, disparaging religions, or otherwise inappropriate. For complete regulations, see the "Guidelines for Reader Comments".