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The Qur'an says in Q9:60 that Muslims should bribe non Muslims so they would convert to Islam part two

Reader comment on item: Can Islam Be Reformed?
in response to reader comment: Islam and the Hindus

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Aug 16, 2014 at 06:47

For the readers the Qur'an says in Q9:60 that Muslims should bribe yes bribe non Muslims so they would convert to Islam and guess where the money comes from? Its source would be the so called al-Zakat which is the money that is supposed to go to poor and needy Muslims and indeed this is what not just al-Tabari and Ibn Kathir and al-Qurtubi tell us that Muslims should bribe non Muslims so they would convert to Islam and I provided our dear Mazhar with a link to al-Mu3jam al-Waseet that explains the meaning of the Quranic al-Mu'alafati Qulubuhum and they are supposed to be the non Muslims that are to be bribed so they convert to Islam

Its is their islamic sources that tell us about this disaster

The real question is why would Allah ask his followers to bribe non Muslims so they would convert to Islam unless Allah is not omnipotent or there is no Allah

I also asked our dear Mazhar did his ancestors the Hindus convert to Islam because they were bribed or were they told to convert or be killed by the sword! I'm still waiting for his answer

All these translations are erroneous

Where did I use translations O glorious madrassa graduate you tell me? You? you have the audacity to use an Urdu source to explain an Arabic book called al-Qur'an remember? You have no shame

since it gives a perception more of baiting, enticement than the sincere philanthropic act.

Then why are we told by al-Qurtubi and al-Tabari that this money goes even to the rich? and what is so "philanthrpoic" about giving money to rich people you tell

Why the delusions and lies?

Their erroneousness is quite apparent because الْمُؤَلَّفَةِ is passive participle Form-II, verbal noun تَالِيفٌ; and قُلُوبُهُمْ:

You still did not answer my question: How come al-Tabari did not use the derived forms? Could it be because it is an invention by Kuffar in the west for us kuffar?

And while we are waiting for your reply and here is a mistake in the book of Allah so spot the mistake in سورة الاعراف ٥٦ and if you do not believe then read what al-Tabari tells us about it

ان رحمت الله قريب

Oh let me fix this poor Arabic

ان رحمة الله قريبة

Oh darn it al-Tabari agrees with me

http://www.quran-for-all.com/t-7-3-56.html

Now can you tell us with your cockamamie Urdu-Arabic grammar why is my version correct and your Allah's version is incorrect and do you think that I win Alla's challenge where he says that we kuffar cannot produce a better aya than he does?

I will be waiting for your answers with great anticipation and remember silence is golden

Submitting....

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