Gaza

Submitted by Donald W. Bales (United States), Jan 29, 2008 at 18:47

It is my understanding that Gaza came under Israeli control after the Egyptians were defeated. It was one of the so-called "occupied territories" that the aggressors lost to Israel-the Golan from Syria, the West Bank from Jordan and Gaza from Egypt. None of these territories were ever under the control of their Arab occupants.

So Syria lost the Golan, Jordan lost the West Bank, and Egypt lost Gaza, but then it is customary for losers to lose and not gain from losing.
Israel has been almost as bad as the U.S. in believing that appeasement or concessions ever lead to any gain. But then both have to deal with hostile attitudes from the UN and from the Europeans neither of whom give a damn about the welfare of the U.S. or Israel.

Perhaps all the money given to Egypt has kept it from going to war with Israel, but it hasn't kept it from allowing propaganda against Israel and the Israelis. Maybe the Islamists would have taken over Egypt without all those U.S. dollars.

Note: Opinions expressed in comments are those of the authors alone and not necessarily those of Daniel Pipes. Original writing only, please. Comments are screened and in some cases edited before posting. Reasoned disagreement is welcome but not comments that are scurrilous, off-topic, commercial, disparaging religions, or otherwise inappropriate. For complete regulations, see the "Guidelines for Reader Comments".