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Allah is never presumptuous

Reader comment on item: A Democratic Islam?
in response to reader comment: Taj: Is Allah being just presumptuous in 9:111?

Submitted by Taj (United States), May 16, 2008 at 14:40

Islam requires a theocratic regime for its survival which is why it is supportive of governments that claim to rule by Islamic sharia.

Not really. but I'd be interested in seeing proof of this requirment

Islam gave rights to women, but on the plea that the Koran is Allah's final word froze them forever to be subservient to men and to be a degree lower than them.

Not really (example, who is a single woman subservient to?). The "degree" is one of responsibility, ie, a woman need not contribute to supporting a household, a man must contribute 100%.

You claim the first major instance of elections was from Islam. What about the Greeks, Romans, Magadh and Vaishali in India? All nearly a 1000 years before Islam.

Re-read my post - I did not ascribe the first elections to Islam...

If these great democratic practices were to be found at Islam's inception have you wondered why they petered out quickly? Could it be that these Allah-given institutions were very weak to begin with?

Womens rights, support for the poor, elections, or constitutions are not "democratic practices"...No I have not wondered why they petered out, if in fact they did....nothing God gives is weak...people are...


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