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Mandi's logic? What logic?And justifying the absurd

Reader comment on item: Debate in London: Radical Islam vs. Civilization
in response to reader comment: Hmmmm...by the same logic....

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Feb 24, 2007 at 06:50

Mandi you cannot be a Copt and you know what? I will ask a good friend of mine who is a Copt to give me a simple Coptic hymn and let us see if you can understand it. I do not believe you.

And why do you assume that I'm Christian? And what difference does it make?

The 9/11 atrocity and the Arab invasion of Egypt are part and parcel of Arabian fascism/imperialism. If you do not see the link you are really out of your mind.

Now what else did we learn from your post? Nothing. Not a thing. The usual Muslim apologetics. And if you are here to defend Islam as a Muslim, I would have with difficulty with that. And so far you have not convinced me that you are a Copt.

Now you wrote:

>I personally don't know why some Egyptian Christians converted to Islam while others did't.

So why do you pontificate about a subject that you seem to be clueless about? And what did you think of the Jizya and the Kharaj taxes that were imposed on the people of Egypt by the invading Arabs? Could this be a good reason for people to convert to Islam? And how about the humiliation of of your ancestors the Copts by Muslims could this be a good reason for converting to islam? And it is all in the Qur'an 9:29 and the infamous 3An yad.

May be it is time that you study why did your people convert to islam and why did Egyptians abandon their native language Coptic/Egyptian for the language of the Arabs. What do you think our dear mandi?

Then you wrote:

>and wasn't it the common practice of the time to invade other countries (everywhere as well as in Europe, for eample)?

This still goes on our dear mandi. However, my question was: did you ever ask yourself why did the Arabs invade Egypt in 642CE? and what is your answer our dear Mandi? You are not very focused so read with care.

But let us go one more step: Muslims tell us that the Arabs invaded Egypt in-order to spread Islam! Oh I forgot and loot and destory and hive 1/5 of the loot to Allah and his rasul the Arabian warlord and caravan raider (see Q8:41) Could this be the reason?

And why would the omnipotent God of the Universe ask mere human beings to inflict such cruelty as war and destruction and looting when he can change the minds and hearts of us all? What do you think our dear mandi? Unless your Allah is no God which he is not.

Then you wrote:

>people around here would say the Anglo Saxon did the same to Native Indians

You are correct and they should say but in Amercia we admit that mistakes have been made and should be rectified. On the other hand I still have to meet a Muslim (with the exception of Farag Foda who was killed) that would admit that atrocities were committed by Muslims against non-Msulims be it the maniac Mahmud of Ghazni's atrocities against the Hindus or the atrocities committed against your own ancestors in the Coptic revolt of 735CE.

Mandi: there is a great book that you as a Copt (sic) should read and it is called " Women of Jeme" and it is about a Coptic village in Upper Egypt on the west bank of today's Luxor and the extant literary evidence (papyri, ostraca and buildings) convers the period between 600CE and 775CE and it is about the struggle of your brutalized ancestors by Muslims and the destruction of your own culture at the hands of the Arabs as the village was abondoned suddenly in 785CE. But again you suffer from the Stockholm syndrome.

The you wrote what must be the ultimate gem

>I can't go back in time to check if Christians in Egypt were forced to convert or were given the choice

This little gem betrays your poor education. This is what the study of history is all about and by writing this you are as I suspected totally clueless.

Do you think that the jizya tax and the kharaj tax were factors? And do we know why Copts converted to islam? may be you should do some reading of history. But you know what? Muslims had no regard for Copts that converted to islam they were regared as mawali and had to pay the mafia tax called Jiazya. Shame.

>and were actually happy to get rid of the Roman (sic) empire which I hear was just as barbaric as you accuse the arabs

And you heard wrong. Hellenism was very different from Arabism. It was a phenomenon of the the cities and in the case of Egypt if you as an Egyptian wanted to be Hellenized you went to Alexandira or the capitals of the Nomes (districts of Egypt) and it would not have even affected your life and this is why Egyptians continued to speak their language inspite of 1000 years of Hellenism in Egypt.

As for the bogus claim that the Arabs liberated the Copts (sic) from the Romans (sic) this is nothing but another bogus claim by islamists like you. The logic here would be: if so why did the Arabs not leave Egypt after liberating it from the Romans (sic)?

Historians of Egypt in the late antique period (the period up to the fall of the Umayyad's in 750CE) and based on extant literary sources are saying that Egyptians apprecaited Hellenism with its stress on learning and culture and the dispute between the Melkites (the Byzantine Church) and the Monophysites (Coptic Egyptians) was nothing but a theological dispute that did not affect the lives of the ordinary Copt at the time. (i will be glad to provide you with many books about the subject). And most damaging to your claim is the diary of John of Nikiu which covers the period between 640CE and 690CE.

The Arabs? They were only interested in looting and jizya and war and destruction and oh I forgot and to give 1/5 of the loot to Allah and his rasul (and if you have Allah's e-mail just send him an e-mail because he has lots of loot to collect). Arabs had no like for culture and education.

So much for mandi al-Qibtiya (sic).

Submitting....

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