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Killing of innocent men, women & children

Reader comment on item: [Beltway Snipers]: Converts to Violence?

Submitted by Hari Iyer (United States), Oct 28, 2002 at 10:32

How come each time an islamist kills, his/her "moderate" islamists keep saying that
"islam doesn't allow killing of innocent men, women & children"?

Is it ok then to kill "non-innocent men, women & children"?

What equals "non-innocents"?

Do infidels equates as "non-innocents"?

Do islamists believe in democratic ideals? & due process deriving out of democratic ideals?

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