Submitted by dihmmi no more (United States), May 22, 2007 at 20:02
Our dear azeem rabina yu3azimuhu akthar wa akthar
Wa ma arsalna rasulan ila bilisani qawmuhu
Oh I forgot that you do not know any Arabic the aya says:
We do not send a messenger unless (he comes) in the language of his people. (see QS page 53)
Do you know what this means?
1. It means that Allah only sends a prophet that speaks the language of his people.
2. Muhammad was sent to his people the Hijazi Arabs who spoke Muhammad's language Arabic!
3. This means that Allah did not send Muhammad to your people (let me guess Pakistanis or are they really Turks?) because their language was not Arabic and it was Urdu!
4. Then who is really the rasul that was sent to your people our dear Azeem because he ain't Muhammad?
If you want more evidence from the Qur'an that islam is the religion of the Arabs just ask and here is a head start for you: Q10:47, 13:8, 35:25, 28:75
And like I say: You are here defending islam and Arabian imperialism that more than likely brutalized your ancestors and for this I say shame.
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