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Jennifer Solis, Please Consult A More Knowledgeable Source

Reader comment on item: Westerners Welcome Harems
in response to reader comment: Why does Deut. 21:15 not use the Qal imperfect of "satam"?

Submitted by orange yonason (United States), Dec 21, 2008 at 00:15


If you want to get into a discussion of Dikduk, you'll have to do that with someone a lot more knowledgeable than myself. All I can tell you about that is that it doesn't matter how much work someone has done if it is wrong. Errors don't become corrected merely by extensive repetition. If you want a correct answer, I recommend "Ask Moses," a group of Chabad Rabbis who are more than eminently qualified.

As to what I think of Deut. 17,17; it doesn't matter what I think. Rashi, who knew more grammar by the age of 13 than your teacher ever will, says regarding it: "'Neither shall he multiply to himself wives,..." [that it means] "Only eighteen; for we see that David had six wives, and it was told to him (II Sam, 12,8), 'and if that were too little, then I would add unto thee as these and these' i.e., twice as many." - [i.e., 2x6+6=18]

And just before that, in Deut, 17,16; it says "Only he [the king] shall not multiply horses unto himself..." If what you say about 17,17 were correct then that would mean that a king must have only one horse, which is just plain silly. (About this Rashi says "Only sufficient for his chariot") And I would think that the actual number depends on what is meant by "sufficient" because if he only has one set of horses, and something happens to them that wouldn't be good, so it only makes sense to me that he have a "spare" set, but that's my own thought. If you want to know what that really means, "Ask Moses,"

I repeat. Ask someone who knows the rules for interpreting the Torah, which were given by Hashem at Sinai. Don't make them up yourself.

Finally, G-d does not change His mind. The Torah is not the "Old Testament." It is the ONLY Testament.



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