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Motke: More disconnect between Arabic v Syriac and Hebrew! Do we blame al-Mufasereen?

Reader comment on item: Poll: Israel Victory Gains Strength
in response to reader comment: dhimmi no more: Syriac v Hebrew v Arabic

Submitted by dhimmi no more, Feb 4, 2019 at 07:07

Hi Motke,

Q9:30 says: قالت اليهود

Or The Jews said

Notice that the word قالت is the plural form of the word Qal or said but in this case it is in the feminine form of the word because of the letter Ta at the end of the word

But this is very unusual in Arabic because one would expect the word to be in the masculine or قال or Qal

How did this happen? If we check the word Jews in Syriac it is ܝܗܘܕܝܘܬܐ or ihudaiuta

Notice the "ta" at the end of the word

I believe that this is the source of using the feminine word Qalat instead of the masculine Qal

More? al-Mufasereen tell us that the word امي means: unlettered (Muhammad is the so called امي prophet/messenger) when in fact the word امي must be a loan word from Syriac (as well as Hebrew. No?) ܥܡܡܐ or 'Amma (pagan or non Jewish and in the Syriac tradition non Jewish and non Christian)

And more evidence that al-mufasereen had no clue what the Qur'an is really saying and that there was indeed a disconnect between 7th century Arabian Arabic and 9th century Mesopotamia where the early Mufasereen wrote the exegesis of the Qur'an!

Submitting....

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