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Reader comment on item: Something Rotten in Denmark?
in response to reader comment: Why killing a peace activist ?

Submitted by Sword of Islam & The Babies of Beslan (United Kingdom), Apr 21, 2006 at 18:23

Welcome, Proctor,

Please clarify just one of the following questions:

1. When did you 'work directly with the Dead Sea Scrolls'?
2. Can you tell us about your scholastic work with the Dead Sea Scrolls, or is it a secret?
3. Can you actually back-up your comment by telling us specifically what was changed in either text during the 600 years between the 'missions' of Jesus and Mohammad, therefore inspiring the ministry of the latter? The Muslim contingent on this board can't so presumably can illuminate this matter for us?

Logic dictates that had the Old Testament been 'corrupted' in the manner suggested by Mohammad this would have been commented upon by Jesus. I am not aware of any such comments but I am even less of a Christian than a I am recognised scholar. Quite the opposite, in fact!

The Dead Sea Scrolls are contemporary to the events described in the New Testament. We therefore have a record of the Old Testament/Torah from that same period as that described in the Bible and can cross-reference with the earliest manuscripts that our respective belief systems were founded upon. Any 'corruption' of this text would havee reverberated acround the world. It hasn't. The 'original' Bible Old Latin Vulgate is known to have been in existence by AD 157. Therefore the New Testament, in it's original form, appeared between AD30 and AD157.
This leaves some time unaccounted for but in the context of the belief that Mohammad was 'sent' because the Jews and Christians had 'corrupted' the 'Book' makes it an argument that is more difficult to refute than accept. The only potential flaw in this logic is that it is not inconceivable that Jesus could have made numerable statements saying that the Torah had been corrupted and these statements were 'excised' from the New Testament between AD30 and AD157. It may even be possible that they are blatantly existent with the New Testament and that I am oblivious to this. However, it would then beg the question as to why a 'corrupt' Old Testament would actually exist! This is the only conceivable explanation that I can think of that could possibly justify your rebuttal (if it can actually be called one!)

So all you have to do to qualify your argument is to let us know where and when Jesus referred to the Torah/Old Testament as being corrupt. It's as easy as that. Shouldn't take you long to respond.

Please educate us with something more than a sentence!


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