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Sohail, My last answers

Reader comment on item: U.S. Improvising on Security Five Years After 9/11
in response to reader comment: Infidel

Submitted by Infidel (Canada), Sep 14, 2006 at 21:05

Sohail, I do not have the intention of answering all your questions from now until the return of Allah and Muhammad. However I will answer the question you posed on your comments dated Sept 14/06.

You asked me why the biblical scholars or priests and bishops don't do the following: "anyone who curses his father or mother must be put to death". The answer is simple; very few people in the world today believe or obey the commandments of God, including scholars, priests and bishops. Therefore, if people ignore the other nine commandments of God, why should they be punished for not keeping the fifth commandment. Furthermore, if most murderers today, who kill one or more people, are seldom put to death as a penalty, why should you expect children who curse their parents to be put to death?

Should the people keep God's commandments, of course they should, but they should keep all of God's commandments and not just the one selected by you. You need to understand Sohail, that when God brought the Israelites out of Egypt, His presence was with them all day and night. In spite of God's presence, the Israelites continued sinning in many different ways even though they suffered immediate punishment. Since the resurrection of Jesus, God has removed his hand from the people and they are allowed to live their lives as they choose. And so they do; they worship other gods, they make images of god, use God's name in cursing, ignore the Sabbath day, disrespect their parents, commit murders, commit adulteries, steal, lie, provide false witnesses and lust for things they don't have or need. Those who choose sin as a way of life will have to pay a penalty one day and that day is fast approaching.

Sohail, you state that, "Jesus did not die for the sins of man if Jesus were to die for somebody sins it would be for the people of Israel for he was only sent to the people of Israel and not to mankind".

Again you are wrong. Acts 28:28 Be it known therefore unto you, that the salvation of God is sent unto the gentiles, and that they will hear it. Romans 1:16 For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believes: to the Jew first, and also to the Greek.

By the way Sohail, it is obvious that you are not that Biblically literate, so clearly you are getting your questions from another source and these are not your personal questions. Therefore this may very well be my last answer to any of your questions.


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