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The truth: Must I be a Muslim or a dhimmi?

Reader comment on item: U.S. Improvising on Security Five Years After 9/11
in response to reader comment: Pat

Submitted by Pat (United States), Sep 9, 2006 at 20:44

[the war verses in the "Noble Quran] were only sent to Muhammad to help him and his people to fight against his enemies.

That was more than thirteen centuries ago. Did those verses only apply to Muhammad? Then why are they passed down? The US did not exist in Muhammad's time. What is the justification for attacking the US today? We never fought Muhammad or prevented Islam from being practiced in the US or anywhere else.

I thought the Koran was the revealed word of God and it was for all time. Now you're saying it only applied to Muhammad when he was busy conquering his neighbors? Then what was the justification for everything that has happened since then?

So what about today? Why do people thirteen centuries removed from Muhammad use these verses as justification for killing? Why does a man enter a clinic and kill someone, all the while shouting Allahu Akbar?

Three thousand people were flying to their destinations or starting their work day in office buildings and they were slaughtered in the name of Islam. Who were they fighting?

Where does the Taliban find the "ISLAMIC" right to kill today? What IS the Islamic right to kill? (I notice you continue to duck the question.)

What was the point of the "invitation" to "convert to Islam or else" that we saw in a recent video?

What was the justification for kidnapping two non-Muslim journalists and forcing them to convert to Islam at the point of a gun? They weren't fighting Muslims or threatening them in any way. Is not submitting to Muslim domination an act of belligerence? I contend that Muslims say it is and that it justifies any and all violence on their part.

Tell me where I'm wrong, please. I need specifics.


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