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French "No-go Zohnes = Ghettoes" explicitly implies French President Francois Hollande

Reader comment on item: Does Europe Have No-go Zones?

Submitted by Ludvikus (United States), Feb 5, 2015 at 14:28

Dear Daniel Pipes,

I refer you to your comment on my comment way these so-called "No-fly Zones" are not "Ghettoes" as I proposed, because the governments involved had legally designated them as such." By implication, I might now say that the Pales of Settlement" under the Tzars of Russian similarly weren't "No-go Zones."

However, political terms do not get Coined from Neologims by Scholars such as yourself; rather, it's politicians and statescraftman, like Jimmy Carter and now Francois Hollande terms their currencies and usages. Jimmy Carter had an effect giving the term "apartheid" some established definitional legitimacy in the case of Arabs and Jews iand Israelis in Israel and Palestine. That's one reason I dislike him much more than President Nixon (it was under Carter than Americans in our Embassy in Terhan were held captive for consequtive 444 days).

Now we have the linguistic reality of the President of France calling these Muslim majority regions of France by the term "Ghettoes":

http://www.telegraph.co.uk/news/worldnews/europe/france/11393344/France-must-tackle-ghettoisation-after-Paris-attacks-says-Francois-Hollande.html

So are you going to announce a Strategic objection to such usage? Or are you going to subscribe to his determination that the mostly African Immigrant Citizens of France have not assimilated and are now living - effectively at least - in French Ghettoes for Muslim French citizens?

This is not a trivial issue. Recall how in the United States "Ni***r" evolved into "Negro" which evolved into "Black" which evolved into "Afro-America" which finally ended as "African American." But in the United States Segregation was not a problem because it was affirmitively modified by anti-Racism housing laws.

So maybe "Segregation" also needs to be invoked regarding the effective exclusion of French Muslim from Christian French neighborhoods? But maybe French Muslims do not wish to "Intetgrate."

How come President Jimmy Carter (our presidents retain their title even after leaving office, unless successfully impeached) is writing another best-book titled "France: Integration, not Segregation" as a follow up on his "Palestine: Peace Not Apartheid?:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Palestine:_Peace_Not_Apartheid

I suspect because he's an unconscious anti-Semite. But I do not know if he's expressed himself regarding the upheavals in France, or the rest of Europe, regarding Muslims and Islaem. Again, isn't it because of an unhealthy preoccupation with the Jews in Israel? I imagine that his secret (to himself) agenda is to show that he's as good a Jew as Jesus was, and the survivors of the Holocaust are morally inferior to him. Otherwise, he should have had a Fotprint on the Web showing as much interest in the welfair of Muslims elsewhere besides the Holyland that absorbed the Jews who escaped Vivtumhod by Euopean Austrin-German Catholic Christian Adolf Hitler. But of course, this does not mean all Christian are like contemporary International Philantropist Christian do-gooder Jimmy Carter.

Submitting....

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