Submitted by ramsesy99(Colombia), Jan 19, 2007 at 21:14
Donvan,
Thanks for your comments. Most Muslim countries are run according civil secular laws. For example in Egypt ( more than 90% muslim), my country of origin, the civil laws are based on the French laws ( you can easily check that by contacting any Egyptian Consulate in your country for a copy of the Egyptian laws). Only when it deal with family affairs ( marriage, divorce, inheritance for example), there are specfic laws to fit each according to their religion.
There are Islamic laws ( Sharia) and laws to fit Coptic-Christians or other non-Coptic Christians such as Catholic according to their religion, respectively. In Egypt the proportion of Christians, as percentage of their population, that run private bussines are much higher compared to muslims. They are richer in general and their per capita income is higher than with Muslims. The first current billionair in Egypt history is an Egyptian Christian, Mr. George Saweris and family who owns a series of big companies.
I disagree with the misinformation you have about the treatment of non-Muslims in Islamic countries. Since the early days of Islam there were always non-Muslims living side by side as equal citizins with the Muslims. If it happened that there were cases of intolerance or a kind of discrimination this has to be blamed on the political regimes and not on the Islamic teachings.The term Muhammedians is a western term not an Islamic term, as Muhhamad is not worshipped in Islam , like Jesus in Christianity,so it is a wrong term!.
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