offensive and sharia

Submitted by Dan (United States), Sep 27, 2005 at 12:47

I'm curious to know why banning Santas, Nativity plays, Christmas carols, and Bibles is not offensive to Christians in the west? Christians make up the overwhelming population in the west. When are they going to stand up for their beliefs? Why does the tail wag the dog? Well, of course the answer is obvious; that corrosive and enlightened philosophy of political correctness!

Regarding sharia law being applied in Ontario: the article notes that if the religion based law does not violate Canadian law, then its decision may be upheld. It would seem, on the face of it, that since muslim women are not accorded equal rights under sharia, at least for certain aspects of the code, and since I assume Canadian law grants equal protection under the law for ALL its citizens, then it would seem those provisions are by definition in violation of Canadian law and should not be allowed. Since other religious "courts" will now be penalized because of muslims, it once again seems the majority are tyrannized a minority, one which does not even belong in the west.

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