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The Reformists Translation of Surat al-Ruum: 2

Reader comment on item: Study the Koran?
in response to reader comment: The Quranic word اللهم (Allahuma) and Elohim

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Nov 27, 2022 at 10:04

Dr. Pipes,

I came across this very unusual translation (although possible) of Q30:2.

This is the verse in the Saudi copy of the Qur'an:

غُلِبَتِ الرُّومُ

And this is the verse without short vowels:

غلبت الروم

Or: al-Ruum (read this as the Greeks) we (either) defeated or won.

al-Tabari reads the word غلبت (from the root: غ-ل-ب) as either:

1. غُلِبَتْ or Ghulibat which means: "defeated"


2. غَلَبِتْ or Ghalabit which means: "Won"

How did this happen? The original rasm of the Qur'an had no short vowels, and this is why the word can be read as either: Won or Defeated.

al-Tabari selected the غُلِبَتْ or "Defeated" Why? Only Allahu A'lam.

Here is a link to al-Tabari's Tafsir of the verse:


Here is the timeline for the long war between the Greeks (al-Ruum or the Romans) and the Persians.

1. The war started in 614-616 AD

2. The Persians invaded Syria, Mesopotamia, Israel/Palestine and Egypt as well as Asia Minor and the Persians were victorious until 622 AD

3. Then in 622 AD the Persians sustained major defeats in battles in Upper Mesopotamia at the hands of the Greeks. This was the beginning of the end for the Persians

4. And by 627 AD the Greeks were able to expel the Persians from Egypt and the war ended in 627 AD and the Greeks were victorious.

5. The Arab invasion of the Middle East started in 632 AD and the Arabs were able to defeat the Greeks and expel them out of Syria and we are reminded by Heraclius in his famous speech: Farwell to Syria

Notice that the Quranic narrative in Surat al-Ruum does not make any sense.

So, were the Greeks defeated by the Persians (which are not even mentioned in the Quranic narrative) then they won the war and defeated the Persians? Or did the Greeks win the war against the Persians and were later on defeated by the Arabs? Only Allahu A'lam

And this must have been the reason why al-Tabari was not sure how to read the word غلبت as: "Won" or "Defeated."

Enter the translation by "The Reformists" of the Qur'an and this is how Q30:2 is translated:

"The Romans have won"

Check page 266 in this link:


Here are the Quranic Corpus translations:


Notice that the word غلبت is read as غُلِبَتْ or "defeated" also "vanquished."

So, who is right and who is wrong? Only Allahu A'lam

However, the implications here are very significant and they are:

1. The Qur'an must have been a written text (and not a memorized text first and then was written and collected and became a book) as we are told.

2. And al-Tabari was editing the words of his God.

3.. It also means that Muslims do not know what the author of the Qur'an is really saying.

4. And how can we be sure that al-Tabari's reading of the word is Ghulibat and not Ghalabit? We will never know

Dear Muslims from India and Pakistan: Surat al-Ruum's text does not make any sense and your so-called scholars are ignorant or liars or both.

Next: Was 630 AD the line of demarcation between the Late Antique world and the Dark ages as well as the Middle Ages and this was brought on by the Arab invasions? Stay tuned


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